Metropolitan Police Mnemonics Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• True or False: In SARA, data collection is confined to police data only.
• In policing, what are the four components represented by the acronym CORN?
• Under section 76 CJPO Act 1994, the offence relates to failing to comply with which order?
• In SAD CHALETS, which step corresponds to Dissemination?
• Which area is addressed by PACE 1984 Code G, section 2.8?
• Which phase is primarily about measuring outcomes and adjusting strategies based on feedback?
• Which stage would you use to explain the purpose of the interview and obtain consent to proceed?
• Which of the following is a protected characteristic under Diversity (MRS P DRAGS)?
• At a crime scene, MEAL guidelines specify preventing which of the following to preserve evidence?
• True or False: The PEACE model allows adaptability to interviewee needs across stages when appropriate.
• Which describes an assault?
• In burglary law, what does having entered as a trespasser imply?
• Which of the following are the essential 'points to prove' for assault?
• Which stage in PEACE is primarily used to review the interview and plan any necessary follow-up actions?
• In the PEACE investigative interviewing framework, which step comes after Engage and Explain?
• Under Section 17 PACE Entry, before entering premises to search for a person (apart from saving life and limb), what must an officer have?
• Which SMART element focuses on evaluating progress with numerical data?
• Which legislation defines resisting or obstructing a constable in the execution of duty?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the Five Key outcomes under Every Child Matters?
• Under the offense 'Assault constable in execution of duty,' which of the following statements is true?
• Which OODA phase involves selecting a course of action?
• Which STOP stage should lead to issuing a stop or approaching a subject?
• In STOP, what should 'Observe' focus on?
• Under Burglary s.9(1)(a), which action completes the offence?
• Which statement about the order of SARA stages is correct?
• In SMART, which component ensures the goal is realistic given available resources?
• Which legislation defines Criminal Damage?
• In the SARA process, which phase is focused on implementing actions and partnerships to address the problem?
• In SAD CHALETS, what is the first step?
• In the correct order of the OODA loop, which sequence reflects the stages?
• Which statement about the PEACE model is true?
• Under section 3 of the Criminal Law Act 1967, a person may use what kind of force?
• In SARA, which stage evaluates the impact of the implemented solutions?
• Under PACE 1984, section 24A(1), who is empowered to arrest without a warrant?
• Which of the following is a ground for Stop and Search?
• If a goal is 'Reduce vehicle-enabled thefts' without a target, which SMART component is missing?
• Under the Firearms Act 1968, section 47, the power to search for firearms is exercisable in which setting?
• In SARA, which stage involves developing and implementing solutions?
• The Account stage in PEACE means asking the suspect to provide a narrative, not forcing a specific answer.
• What is the main purpose of 'Plan' in STOP during an encounter?
• Which item is an example of a Made Weapon?
• Which offense is committed by possessing an offensive weapon in a public place?
• RAT stands for?
• Which attribute is NOT part of the CORN acronym?
• The offence of fear or provocation of violence is defined in which provision?
• In the SARA model, a temporary measure to reduce incidents while longer-term solutions are developed. Which phase is this?
• How can the speed of the OODA loop impact police decision-making in fast-moving incidents?
• Under sections 6, 7, 8 or 10 of the Criminal Law Act 1977, which situation requires you to be in uniform?
• Which approach helps prevent decision-action mismatches by confirming observations before acting?
• True or False: SARA requires community engagement.
• Which offense is defined as using or threatening unlawful violence towards another in a manner that would cause a person of reasonable firmness present to fear for their personal safety?
• Aggravated burglary s.10(1) includes possession of which at the time of burglary?
• Under Section 46 of the Children Act 1989, in emergencies, a constable may remove a child to suitable accommodation if they believe the child would otherwise suffer significant harm.
• In JAILHOP, which element ensures the suspect appears in court?
• Which legislation defines the offence of making off without payment?
• In a dynamic incident, which OODA component is about considering the environment and the opponent's actions?
• Which of the following describes a breach of the peace?
• Which aspect of SMART ensures a goal can be tracked over time?
• Which stage is used to manage the structure and logistics of the interview before speaking with the interviewee?
• What does PLAN stand for in police stop and search practice?
• Under Section 64A(1) PACE, a detained person may be photographed without consent when?
• What does the acronym MERLIN stand for in police operations?
• Which offense prohibits possession of a bladed or pointed article in a public place?
• Which offense is defined as assault occasioning actual bodily harm (AOABH)?
• Under Public Order Act section 5, which action constitutes the offense?
• Public Order Act section 5 makes it an offence to do which of the following?
• Give an example of a decision-action mismatch in the OODA loop.
• Which factor is recorded under the ADVOKATE framework for eyewitness observation?
• AOABH is defined under which act?
• True or False: In the PEACE model, the Engage and Explain stage aims to build rapport and explain the purpose of the interview.
• Which of the following is NOT a component of the VOLT acronym?
• Which PEACE stage is primarily used to plan how to follow up or determine next actions after the interview?
• Under Burglary Section 9(1)(a) with intent, which elements must be proven?
• Which acronym stands for a framework involving Scanning, Analysis, Response, and Assessment?
• Which statement best defines burglary under Theft Act 1968, section 9(1)(a)?
• VOLT is an acronym used in incident reporting. What four elements does it represent?
• In SARA, what is a key output of the 'Analysis' phase?
• True or False: In OODA, you must always complete all four stages before acting.
• Under PACE Code A, what is the object of search under Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, section 23?
• DR SORT relates to which Act?
• Which of the following is explicitly listed as a ground for Stop and Search?
• In the MERLIN acronym, what does the letter I stand for?
• In the SARA problem-solving model, which term represents the second stage?
• Under PACE 1984, section 24(2), when may a constable arrest without warrant?
• What constitutes taking a conveyance without the owner's consent?
• In the SARA framework, which term represents the third stage?
• According to the Theft Act 1968, which statement describes the essential element of theft?
• Which option represents the Public Order Act offense described earlier?
• True or False: In PEACE, you should adapt your approach to the interview according to the interviewee’s needs within the Engage and Explain stage.
• In the PEACE framework, which stage involves summarizing the interview and capturing final details?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the Five Key outcomes under Every Child Matters?
• In SAD CHALETS, which step involves starting a log and safety?
• Which statement describes affray?
• Which STOP stage is used to decide on next steps and potential actions?
• Under the pocket notebook NO ELBOWS rules, which practice is allowed?
• Under PACE 1984, section 32(1), a search of an arrested person not at a police station is allowed if the constable has reasonable grounds to believe the person may present a danger to themselves or others.
• In the DIE mnemonic used during searches, which is the middle element?
• Which legislation defines the offence of making off without payment?
• The Paint the Picture mnemonic includes which observations?
• During an operation, which OODA phase is primarily responsible for selecting a course of action based on observed data and orientation?
• In the JAILHOP mnemonic, which component corresponds to preventing further offences?
• Under PACE 1984, section 32(1), when may a constable search an arrested person who was arrested at a place other than a police station?
• What is required for fear or provocation of violence offence regarding intent?
• Under the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, when may a constable use reasonable force in exercising a power?
• During SARA, which phase focuses on forming and testing hypotheses about root causes?
• Which act makes it an offense to assault a constable in the execution of their duty?
• Which item is an example of an Adapted Weapon?
• Under the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, which section prohibits possession of a controlled drug?
• Which PEACE stage emphasizes planning the interview and arranging the setting?
• Which statement best describes the Account stage?
• Name one key goal of the PEACE model.
• In high-stress scenarios, which strategy helps maintain situational awareness within the OODA framework?
• Under which statute is it an offence to resist or wilfully obstruct a constable in the execution of his duty?
• DR SORT mapping includes protected characteristics; which of the following is listed as a protected characteristic?
• Which statement best describes the offense of robbery?
• The ID A CURE test requires: A) impairment or disturbance and inability to Communicate, Understand, Retain, or Employ; B) impairment alone; C) disturbance alone; D) only one factor needed.
• What is the first element of the ROAST mnemonic?
• Which of the following is NOT an element of a lawful arrest?
• What does SARA stand for in policing problem-solving?
• Which category of consent to assault includes situations such as self-defence or police where consent is not required?
• If a goal states 'Reduce vehicle-enabled thefts by 20% in 6 months', which SMART component is demonstrated by the 6 months?
• Under Common Law, when may you use force to avoid imminent danger?
• Which principle best describes how the PEACE model aligns with rights-based interviewing?
• In the PLAN framework, which principle ensures actions are the least intrusive necessary to achieve a legitimate objective?
• In STOP, what is the primary objective of 'Think'?
• PACE Code A lists six powers to stop and search. Which Act is NOT listed among them?
• What does the PEACE acronym stand for in investigative interviewing?
• In domestic abuse risk levels, which category represents the lowest risk?
• Burglary s.9(1)(b) involves which action?
• Which list represents the CHALET components for first incident reports?
• Under 24A(1), a person other than a constable may arrest without a warrant for which type of offence?
• Which phase is most closely associated with updating your mental model based on new information?
• Which phase comes after Scanning in the typical SARA cycle?
• What does SMART stand for in goal setting?
• A SARA-based approach requires ongoing feedback loops. Which phase explicitly facilitates that?
• In PEACE, which stage would you document any deviations from standard procedure?
• The Use of Force applies under which section?
• In the PLAN framework, which principle requires police actions to be justified as necessary and not excessive?
• Which element is essential to convict someone of possessing a bladed article in a public place?
• Which item is a ground for Stop and Search under SOAP FC?
• In PEACE, which stage is primarily about asking questions to elicit the account while avoiding leading questions?
• Which Act is cited as a specific offence example in the material?
• The PEACE model emphasizes non-coercive interviewing. Which option best captures this principle?
• Which act/section defines 'Going Equipped'?
• Why is 'Time-bound' important in SMART goals for policing?
• In the PEACE framework, which stage focuses on allowing the interviewee to tell their account in their own words?
• Which Act contains the provisions for unfitness to drive due to drink or drugs and failing to stop for a constable?
• What does CBRN stand for?
• In SARA, which activity belongs to the 'Response' phase?
• In the PEACE investigative interviewing framework, which stage comes last?
• Which PEACE stage would you use to check the interviewee’s understanding and consent to proceed?
• Which section of PACE is typically cited for stop and search powers?
• In the STOP mnemonic used for Stop and Search, what do the letters stand for?
• Which of the following is an aim of PAPER questions asked after arrest and before arriving at the station?
• Burglary s.9(1)(a) requires which of the following as the core element?
• Which factor is a Reasonable Ground for Suspicion under Stop and Search (ADVOKATE)?
• In police terminology, what does the acronym RAVE stand for?
• In which phase of the OODA loop do you take action?
• What is the primary purpose of PEACE in policing?
• True or False: SARA is a reactive model and does not require community engagement.
• MARAC stands for?
• Which STOP stage is primarily concerned with collecting information about behavior and risk indicators in the environment?
• In PEACE, which stage would you verify information obtained against other evidence?
• In SARA, which stage follows the implementation of solutions to assess outcomes?
• In the ROAST mnemonic used at arrests, which is the fourth element?
• Which offense involves possessing an offensive weapon in a public place?
• In VISOR, what does the 'V' stand for?
• The OODA loop was originally developed in which field?
• What does OODA stand for?
• Under PACE 1984, section 24(3), which persons may be arrested without warrant for a past offence?
• When starting a SARA cycle, what is the essential first step?
• Which is a criterion for necessity of arrest?
• Aggravated burglary charge can be supported by possession of which item?
• Which action is NOT part of the SCENE protocol?
• A child can be in police protection for up to how many hours?
• Reasonable grounds for Stop and Search may be established by which method?
• There is a trade-off between speed and accuracy in the OODA loop; which statement best describes it?
• Under the Aviation Security Act 1982, section 27(1), what is the object of search?
• Which statute and section defines unlawfully wounding or inflicting grievous bodily harm?
• Which statement correctly pairs a principle with its model?
• Under PACE 1984, which statement is true regarding the use of reasonable force?
• DASH stands for?
• Under s.4 POA, what issue does it address?
• CHAP includes which of the following offences?
• Which SARA phase is most concerned with hypothesizing about root causes and testing hypotheses?
• When deciding whether to arrest, which factors must be considered?
• Under PACE 1984, section 24(3) for a past offence, which individuals may be arrested without warrant?
• Which statement best describes a Critical Incident – Hate crime?
• In a policing context, give an example of a SMART objective for reducing a particular type of incident.
• In SARA, which stage should you define the problem in measurable terms?
• Which phase of OODA is directly connected to taking action in the field?
• You measure the success of the intervention by changes in incident frequency and community perception. Which SARA phase are you applying?
• In SARA, which stage involves identifying underlying causes of a problem?
• PENS stands for?